[QUOTE="thegerg"][QUOTE="sonicare"] But obviously in that particular case, he was committing a felony. He was threatening their life and they told him what he wanted to hear so they could escape with their lives. You could sue me for wearing a red shirt because it affects your ability to enjoy life and thus has caused he irreparable harm. Perhaps my shirt triggered an allergy and caused you pain and suffering. All of these reason are absurd, but people have sued for less and won.StRaItJaCkEt36
None of that changes the fact that that man is suing them because of a financial loss. Whether or not that loss was lawful does not change that. Go back and read the example I provided. I can't sue you simply because I don't like the shirt you're wearing. If I have suffered a loss due to your actions, though, it might be a different story. You don't get it. Even if you suffer a loss, that doesn't mean a person is negligable for your loss. Let's say you're allergic to peanuts. You come across a coicencedantal encounter with a man, who happens to have peanuts on himself. And some how you come down with an allergic reaction. This man isn't negligable. He as every right to go for a walk with peanuts on himself. Now if he force feeds you peanuts, or knowingly tries to harm you with peanuts then he is negligable. There is a difference. And that's what is being discussed here. NOT every personal loss, should be attributed to somebody else because of approximation or coincedental meetings with that person. It impeedes on a persons right to live their life. I shouldn't have to worry every time I walk out my door that I'm going to come across a person that might be harmed by me without intent, and then seek legal action against me.INTENT is important.
Intent has nothing to do with negligence. Negligence is just a failure to do or not do what the reasonable person would.
Intentional torts (battery, assault, conversion, etc) do not usually fall under respondeat superior (where employers are responsible for the actions of employees that are within the scope of employment) unless it is a policy of the place of business to commit such acts.
In terms of an employer being sued, the employee who committed tort does not usually does not have the means to pay the judgment against them, while the business usually does. I know it sounds unfair to some, but should the injured party really not be able to collect for their damages? While at times tort law seems like people are just out to get money at its base its just about putting the injured party in the place they were before the tort occurred.
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