Pssst, Gabu! Tell him about that translation error...! :)ChiliDragon
It's the eighth post in this very thread; I'd feel a little strange restating it already. :P
Although I can perhaps expand a bit more on the phrase aionion kolasin, since that phrase is ultimately at the very heart of this entire matter. If you search on the internet, you will inevitably find people claiming that aionion does mean "eternal", or at least sometimes means "eternal" (rather convenient, that, considering that aionion is the description of the time Jonah spent inside the fish used in the Septuagint). This is, I am afraid to say, a case of people attempting to determine the meaning of Greek words based on their already etched in stone interpretation of the Bible - which is rather backwards from the correct direction of determining the meaning of the Bible from the meaning of the Greek words used therein. And I must say that this is problematic for a number of reasons:
1. No one I know of attempts to contest the idea that kolasin refers to punishment with the intent to correct behavior, in contrast to timoria which refers to punishment with the intent to cause suffering. Yet, how can punishment with the intent to correct behavior be eternal? Such a punishment would by definition end when the person in question has changed. If it never ends, then the person never changes. And if this punishment has been ordained by God, then that would mean that God will inevitably fail to do what he wants to do - not exactly something I imagine that stalwart Christians would wish to assert. Although, considering that the Bible tells us that Jesus Christ was the savior of all men (1 Timothy 4:10), and considering that we are told that only a tiny minority of humanity will actually be saved - they pretty much have to tell us every single day that God will ultimately fail.
2. Koine Greek is an exceptionally precise language. There are no fewer than eleven Greek words that are translated in the King James Version of the Bible into the singular English word "destroy". For every single sense of the English word - to ruin, to cause to cease, to destroy utterly, to cleanse, to prepare for a replacement, etc. - there is a separate Greek word. No word in the language was without a specific purpose that was not fulfilled by any other word. Yet if we are to claim that aionion "sometimes" means "eternal" (I'd like to see them find another Koine Greek word that changes meaning with context, by the by), then this means that, whoever coined the word (signs point to Plato) invented an utterly useless word for no apparent reason whatsoever - the Greek word aidion (the actual word that means "eternal") predates aionion. So why would the Greeks invent an utterly pointless synonym for a concept for which they already had a word?
3. Josephus, a first century Jewish scholar, had this to say of the Pharisees:
"They believe the souls of the bad are allotted aidios eirgmos (eternal imprisonment) and punished with adialeiptos timoria (unceasing vengeful punishment)."
And he had this to say of the Essenes:
"(They allot) to bad souls a dark, tempestuous place, full of adialeiptos timoria (unceasing vengeful punishment), where they suffer athanaton timorian (deathless vengeful punishment)."
No use of aionion. No use of kolasin.
Here we begin to see the true meaning of the very deliberate wording in Matthew 25:46. The Pharisees and Essenes are said to believe in eternal imprisonment and unceasing vengeful punishment. This sounds identical to the modern Christian view of hell. Yet, if Jesus intended to affirm this doctrine, then why did he not use this wording? Instead of aidion or adialeiptos, he used aionion, and instead of timoria, he used kolasin. Surely he chose his words such that all who heard him speak would understand precisely what he was telling them. So if we are to understand that the Greek text of the New Testament affirms the doctrine of eternal punishment in hell as understood by the Jewish teachers and authorities of that day, then why do we not see the wording that Josephus uses to describe the Pharisees' and Essenes' belief of unending imprisonment and punishment?
We instead see the contrary: just as Jesus went against the teachings of the Pharisees on several other occasions, so too here is Jesus telling us that instead of eternal torment, no, God loves you, and will always love you, and any punishment for wrongdoing will be corrective and temporary. This fits in perfectly with his message of unconditional and unending love for all mankind - the idea of eternal torment of the damned, not so much.
The bottom line is that it just plain makes no sense whatsoever on many, many levels to assert aionion kolasin to mean anything other than "corrective punishment spanning an unspecified length of time". The doctrine of eternal punishment is basically fallible men dragging the Bible down to their level, nothing more. That we have now come full circle and are now back among the Pharisees, believing in eternal punishment and really caring more about tradition than anything else (even going so far as to attempt to redefine Koine Greek words to fit our preconceptions of what the Bible says), is a pretty sad reflection of the human condition.
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