So I've been thinking to myself whilst studying and such... and I thought this. You might have to bear with me. I might be going insane. Anyway, take any timespan. There's point 1 and point 2, and it takes 1 second to reach point 2 from point 1. Now, smack another point (3) right in the middle of that timespan. It takes half a second to get from 1 to 3, and from 3 to 2. Smack another point (4) between 1 and 3... quarter of a second between 1 and 4, right?
Okay, so you get the idea. You can keep splitting the points in time. And the time it takes to pass from one point to another gets ever shorter. Now, you can do this ad infinium. So there's a teeny tiny time span between 1 and n. But don't forget, there are tiny timespans after this... which all add up to one second (1 second between points 1 and 2).
My question... there's an infinite number of smaller timespans between 1 and 2. If we travel through time, beginning at 1, and have to traverse each one to reach 2... how do we ever reach 2? Surely we cannot.. for then we would've reached the end of infinity. We would have travelled through an infinite number of timespans. Paradox. Explain where my logic is failing, please, before I implode.
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