Answer me this, you lovely people

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SolidSnake35

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#1 SolidSnake35
Member since 2005 • 58971 Posts

So I've been thinking to myself whilst studying and such... and I thought this. You might have to bear with me. I might be going insane. Anyway, take any timespan. There's point 1 and point 2, and it takes 1 second to reach point 2 from point 1. Now, smack another point (3) right in the middle of that timespan. It takes half a second to get from 1 to 3, and from 3 to 2. Smack another point (4) between 1 and 3... quarter of a second between 1 and 4, right?

Okay, so you get the idea. You can keep splitting the points in time. And the time it takes to pass from one point to another gets ever shorter. Now, you can do this ad infinium. So there's a teeny tiny time span between 1 and n. But don't forget, there are tiny timespans after this... which all add up to one second (1 second between points 1 and 2).

My question... there's an infinite number of smaller timespans between 1 and 2. If we travel through time, beginning at 1, and have to traverse each one to reach 2... how do we ever reach 2? Surely we cannot.. for then we would've reached the end of infinity. We would have travelled through an infinite number of timespans. Paradox. Explain where my logic is failing, please, before I implode.

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Baconbits2004

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#2 Baconbits2004
Member since 2009 • 12602 Posts
We reach 2 by... reaching 2. Without your head imploding, time travel or infinity?
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#3 mrmusicman247
Member since 2008 • 17601 Posts

That's precisely why time travel is impossible. I think.

EDIT: I have to be honest, I'm a little tipsy so I probably didn't understand it.

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mattbbpl

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#4 mattbbpl
Member since 2006 • 23356 Posts

Even though you are dealing with an infinite number of points, you're still dealing with a finite amount of space. You're just dealing with smaller and smaller segments of space within that overall space.

Since the passage of time you've proposed is expressed as speed (amount of space covered per unit of time, or second), then you're sub-points don't enter into the equation at all. In the end, you're still dealing with the same amount of finite space you were dealing with at the beginning.

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scorch-62

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#5 scorch-62
Member since 2006 • 29763 Posts
Unless point 1 is constantly moving with you (making point 2 move with it), I don't understand the issue. One second is one second no matter how you slice it.
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KH-mixerX

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#6 KH-mixerX
Member since 2007 • 5702 Posts

I obviously missed something.

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Baconbits2004

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#7 Baconbits2004
Member since 2009 • 12602 Posts
Unless point 1 is constantly moving with you (making point 2 move with it), I don't understand the issue. One second is one second no matter how you slice it.scorch-62
So there isn't a way to slice this that makes his head implode?
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mattbbpl

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#8 mattbbpl
Member since 2006 • 23356 Posts
[QUOTE="scorch-62"]Unless point 1 is constantly moving with you (making point 2 move with it), I don't understand the issue. One second is one second no matter how you slice it.Baconbits2004
So there isn't a way to slice this that makes his head implode?

Not really. He's just trying to use a variable in the equation that isn't relevant.
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Theokhoth

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#9 Theokhoth
Member since 2008 • 36799 Posts
Xeno? Is that you?
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mikegtfc

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#10 mikegtfc
Member since 2005 • 604 Posts
It doesn't matter how many points inbetween as it's still only a second, surely?
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#11 scorch-62
Member since 2006 • 29763 Posts
[QUOTE="scorch-62"]Unless point 1 is constantly moving with you (making point 2 move with it), I don't understand the issue. One second is one second no matter how you slice it.Baconbits2004
So there isn't a way to slice this that makes his head implode?

That's an entirely separate variable in his equation.
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ff7fan2

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#12 ff7fan2
Member since 2006 • 31413 Posts
You're dealing with a finite amount of space. By getting from point 1 to point 2, you, in theory, traverse every possible "checkpoint".
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spacesheikh

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#13 spacesheikh
Member since 2010 • 662 Posts

In calculus, the sum of infinitely small quantities can in some cases add up to a finite number.

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Baconbits2004

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#14 Baconbits2004
Member since 2009 • 12602 Posts
[QUOTE="Baconbits2004"][QUOTE="scorch-62"]Unless point 1 is constantly moving with you (making point 2 move with it), I don't understand the issue. One second is one second no matter how you slice it.scorch-62
So there isn't a way to slice this that makes his head implode?

That's an entirely separate variable in his equation.

:( you and your logics...
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SolidSnake35

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#15 SolidSnake35
Member since 2005 • 58971 Posts

Even though you are dealing with an infinite number of points, you're still dealing with a finite amount of space. You're just dealing with smaller and smaller segments of space within that overall space.

Since the passage of time you've proposed is expressed as speed (amount of space covered per unit of time, or second), then you're sub-points don't enter into the equation at all. In the end, you're still dealing with the same amount of finite space you were dealing with at the beginning.

mattbbpl
Sounds about right.. I can't get my head around it still, though. In my head I have an analogy of a passenger in a car... passing way points. Though they are extremely small, they are still successive. You must pass them all. You must pass them all in one second. But you surely cannot, for there an infinite number of them. You might fly past a zillion of them in 0.9 seconds... but there'd be another zillion to pass in the last 0.1 seconds you have left.
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branketra

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#16 branketra
Member since 2006 • 51726 Posts

1) There aren't infinite splits between points in time.

2) There may be infinite splits. You just aren't "in that realm of infinity," so to speak. Like multiple universes. They may exist, but "you" may just be in this one.

The second sounded way better before I typed it out...

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#17 mikegtfc
Member since 2005 • 604 Posts
[QUOTE="mattbbpl"]

Even though you are dealing with an infinite number of points, you're still dealing with a finite amount of space. You're just dealing with smaller and smaller segments of space within that overall space.

Since the passage of time you've proposed is expressed as speed (amount of space covered per unit of time, or second), then you're sub-points don't enter into the equation at all. In the end, you're still dealing with the same amount of finite space you were dealing with at the beginning.

SolidSnake35
Sounds about right.. I can't get my head around it still, though. In my head I have an analogy of a passenger in a car... passing way points. Though they are extremely small, they are still successive. You must pass them all. You must pass them all in one second. But you surely cannot, for there an infinite number of them. You might fly past a zillion of them in 0.9 seconds... but there'd be another zillion to pass in the last 0.1 seconds you have left.

But it's stil the same amount of time so it should be irrelevant how many points there are.
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SolidSnake35

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#18 SolidSnake35
Member since 2005 • 58971 Posts

In calculus, the sum of infinitely small quantities can in some cases add up to a finite number.

spacesheikh
This could be the mathematical knowledge I am lacking. I studied a philosophy paper last year that involved infinitesimals and I just could not get to grip with the concept of it at all.
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scorch-62

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#19 scorch-62
Member since 2006 • 29763 Posts
Sounds about right.. I can't get my head around it still, though. In my head I have an analogy of a passenger in a car... passing way points. Though they are extremely small, they are still successive. You must pass them all. You must pass them all in one second. But you surely cannot, for there an infinite number of them. You might fly past a zillion of them in 0.9 seconds... but there'd be another zillion to pass in the last 0.1 seconds you have left.SolidSnake35
You're applying concepts of infinity to a finite set of time. Stop that.
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SolidSnake35

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#20 SolidSnake35
Member since 2005 • 58971 Posts
[QUOTE="SolidSnake35"][QUOTE="mattbbpl"]

Even though you are dealing with an infinite number of points, you're still dealing with a finite amount of space. You're just dealing with smaller and smaller segments of space within that overall space.

Since the passage of time you've proposed is expressed as speed (amount of space covered per unit of time, or second), then you're sub-points don't enter into the equation at all. In the end, you're still dealing with the same amount of finite space you were dealing with at the beginning.

mikegtfc
Sounds about right.. I can't get my head around it still, though. In my head I have an analogy of a passenger in a car... passing way points. Though they are extremely small, they are still successive. You must pass them all. You must pass them all in one second. But you surely cannot, for there an infinite number of them. You might fly past a zillion of them in 0.9 seconds... but there'd be another zillion to pass in the last 0.1 seconds you have left.

But it's stil the same amount of time so it should be irrelevant how many points there are.

So if you count them all on the way by, what number do you get to?
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#21 JordanizPro
Member since 2009 • 1912 Posts
[QUOTE="SolidSnake35"]

So I've been thinking to myself whilst studying and such... and I thought this. You might have to bear with me. I might be going insane. Anyway, take any timespan. There's point 1 and point 2, and it takes 1 second to reach point 2 from point 1. Now, smack another point (3) right in the middle of that timespan. It takes half a second to get from 1 to 3, and from 3 to 2. Smack another point (4) between 1 and 3... quarter of a second between 1 and 4, right?

Okay, so you get the idea. You can keep splitting the points in time. And the time it takes to pass from one point to another gets ever shorter. Now, you can do this ad infinium. So there's a teeny tiny time span between 1 and n. But don't forget, there are tiny timespans after this... which all add up to one second (1 second between points 1 and 2).

My question... there's an infinite number of smaller timespans between 1 and 2. If we travel through time, beginning at 1, and have to traverse each one to reach 2... how do we ever reach 2? Surely we cannot.. for then we would've reached the end of infinity. We would have travelled through an infinite number of timespans. Paradox. Explain where my logic is failing, please, before I implode.

You must have no life for you to actually think of all of this :|
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SolidSnake35

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#22 SolidSnake35
Member since 2005 • 58971 Posts
[QUOTE="SolidSnake35"]Sounds about right.. I can't get my head around it still, though. In my head I have an analogy of a passenger in a car... passing way points. Though they are extremely small, they are still successive. You must pass them all. You must pass them all in one second. But you surely cannot, for there an infinite number of them. You might fly past a zillion of them in 0.9 seconds... but there'd be another zillion to pass in the last 0.1 seconds you have left.scorch-62
You're applying concepts of infinity to a finite set of time. Stop that.

It could solve world hunger. Slice a finite loaf of bread into an infinite number of pieces. Sandwiches for all.
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scorch-62

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#23 scorch-62
Member since 2006 • 29763 Posts
1) There aren't infinite splits between points in time.BranKetra
Theoretically, there very well could be. However, these splits wouldn't work as the OP suggests.
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SolidSnake35

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#24 SolidSnake35
Member since 2005 • 58971 Posts
[QUOTE="JordanizPro"][QUOTE="SolidSnake35"]

So I've been thinking to myself whilst studying and such... and I thought this. You might have to bear with me. I might be going insane. Anyway, take any timespan. There's point 1 and point 2, and it takes 1 second to reach point 2 from point 1. Now, smack another point (3) right in the middle of that timespan. It takes half a second to get from 1 to 3, and from 3 to 2. Smack another point (4) between 1 and 3... quarter of a second between 1 and 4, right?

Okay, so you get the idea. You can keep splitting the points in time. And the time it takes to pass from one point to another gets ever shorter. Now, you can do this ad infinium. So there's a teeny tiny time span between 1 and n. But don't forget, there are tiny timespans after this... which all add up to one second (1 second between points 1 and 2).

My question... there's an infinite number of smaller timespans between 1 and 2. If we travel through time, beginning at 1, and have to traverse each one to reach 2... how do we ever reach 2? Surely we cannot.. for then we would've reached the end of infinity. We would have travelled through an infinite number of timespans. Paradox. Explain where my logic is failing, please, before I implode.

You must have no life for you to actually think of all of this :|

It was more entertaining in my mind than Kant's Critique of Pure Reason. :(
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scorch-62

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#25 scorch-62
Member since 2006 • 29763 Posts
[QUOTE="scorch-62"][QUOTE="SolidSnake35"]Sounds about right.. I can't get my head around it still, though. In my head I have an analogy of a passenger in a car... passing way points. Though they are extremely small, they are still successive. You must pass them all. You must pass them all in one second. But you surely cannot, for there an infinite number of them. You might fly past a zillion of them in 0.9 seconds... but there'd be another zillion to pass in the last 0.1 seconds you have left.SolidSnake35
You're applying concepts of infinity to a finite set of time. Stop that.

It could solve world hunger. Slice a finite loaf of bread into an infinite number of pieces. Sandwiches for all.

What if the world wants toast?
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#26 frostybanana
Member since 2010 • 5523 Posts

So I've been thinking to myself whilst studying and such... and I thought this. You might have to bear with me. I might be going insane. Anyway, take any timespan. There's point 1 and point 2, and it takes 1 second to reach point 2 from point 1. Now, smack another point (3) right in the middle of that timespan. It takes half a second to get from 1 to 3, and from 3 to 2. Smack another point (4) between 1 and 3... quarter of a second between 1 and 4, right?

Okay, so you get the idea. You can keep splitting the points in time. And the time it takes to pass from one point to another gets ever shorter. Now, you can do this ad infinium. So there's a teeny tiny time span between 1 and n. But don't forget, there are tiny timespans after this... which all add up to one second (1 second between points 1 and 2).

My question... there's an infinite number of smaller timespans between 1 and 2. If we travel through time, beginning at 1, and have to traverse each one to reach 2... how do we ever reach 2? Surely we cannot.. for then we would've reached the end of infinity. We would have travelled through an infinite number of timespans. Paradox. Explain where my logic is failing, please, before I implode.

SolidSnake35
I think you're thinking about it a little too hard. There's no logic to fail with. You're assuming that one would split a finite amount of time into an infinite amount of points. That doesn't make a lot of sense if you're traveling through time. You would have to split that finite amount of time into a finite amount of intervals, otherwise there's no tangible amount of time to transverse. Saying that your intervals are infinite means that they're always going to be changing as you travel through them because without an actual number there's no way of traveling to any point because that point is always moving.
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ff7fan2

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#27 ff7fan2
Member since 2006 • 31413 Posts
So if you count them all on the way by, what number do you get to?SolidSnake35
0. You're forced to stand still seeing as how you wouldn't even reach the first sub point.
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heysharpshooter

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#28 heysharpshooter
Member since 2009 • 6348 Posts

Is time also space? Forgive me if I am wrong, but how is one dealing with a finite amount of space when dealing with infinte about of time? I'm not trying to be a jerk, that just doesn't make sense to me... your traveling through time, not a distance of space...

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#29 cybrcatter
Member since 2003 • 16210 Posts

lulz, I feel like messing with TC's state of mind right now.

Should we start out with the harmonic series?

Or how about Monty Hall's 3 door game?

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#30 Agent-Zero
Member since 2009 • 6198 Posts
Just take some calculus, they discuss all that. It's kind of trippy to think about. Like if you accelarate from 10mph to 20 mph, at some point in time you travel every velocity between 10 and 20. Which is an infinite amount, yet still somehow you get there. No matter the space in between the two values you can always divide by two. I believe this is something called Zeno's Paradox or something like that.
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SolidSnake35

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#31 SolidSnake35
Member since 2005 • 58971 Posts
[QUOTE="scorch-62"][QUOTE="SolidSnake35"][QUOTE="scorch-62"] You're applying concepts of infinity to a finite set of time. Stop that.

It could solve world hunger. Slice a finite loaf of bread into an infinite number of pieces. Sandwiches for all.

What if the world wants toast?

If we try spreading butter on toast that thin, there's gonna be a disaster.
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spacesheikh

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#32 spacesheikh
Member since 2010 • 662 Posts
[QUOTE="SolidSnake35"]

So I've been thinking to myself whilst studying and such... and I thought this. You might have to bear with me. I might be going insane. Anyway, take any timespan. There's point 1 and point 2, and it takes 1 second to reach point 2 from point 1. Now, smack another point (3) right in the middle of that timespan. It takes half a second to get from 1 to 3, and from 3 to 2. Smack another point (4) between 1 and 3... quarter of a second between 1 and 4, right?

Okay, so you get the idea. You can keep splitting the points in time. And the time it takes to pass from one point to another gets ever shorter. Now, you can do this ad infinium. So there's a teeny tiny time span between 1 and n. But don't forget, there are tiny timespans after this... which all add up to one second (1 second between points 1 and 2).

My question... there's an infinite number of smaller timespans between 1 and 2. If we travel through time, beginning at 1, and have to traverse each one to reach 2... how do we ever reach 2? Surely we cannot.. for then we would've reached the end of infinity. We would have travelled through an infinite number of timespans. Paradox. Explain where my logic is failing, please, before I implode.

frostybanana
I think you're thinking about it a little too hard. There's no logic to fail with. You're assuming that one would split a finite amount of time into an infinite amount of points. That doesn't make a lot of sense if you're traveling through time. You would have to split that finite amount of time into a finite amount of intervals, otherwise there's no tangible amount of time to transverse. Saying that your intervals are infinite means that they're always going to be changing as you travel through them because without an actual number there's no way of traveling to any point because that point is always moving.

That's not true. As i said before, an infinite number of very small quantities can in fact add to a tangible sum.
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SolidSnake35

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#33 SolidSnake35
Member since 2005 • 58971 Posts
[QUOTE="Agent-Zero"]Just take some calculus, they discuss all that. It's kind of trippy to think about. Like if you accelarate from 10mph to 20 mph, at some point in time you travel every velocity between 10 and 20. Which is an infinite amount, yet still somehow you get there. No matter the space in between the two values you can always divide by two. I believe this is something called Zeno's Paradox or something like that.

Oh, someone called me Zeno. Now I get it. Just googled it.. pretty cool.
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#34 rcignoni
Member since 2004 • 8863 Posts
Isn't this why we have calculus?
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#35 frostybanana
Member since 2010 • 5523 Posts
[QUOTE="frostybanana"][QUOTE="SolidSnake35"]

So I've been thinking to myself whilst studying and such... and I thought this. You might have to bear with me. I might be going insane. Anyway, take any timespan. There's point 1 and point 2, and it takes 1 second to reach point 2 from point 1. Now, smack another point (3) right in the middle of that timespan. It takes half a second to get from 1 to 3, and from 3 to 2. Smack another point (4) between 1 and 3... quarter of a second between 1 and 4, right?

Okay, so you get the idea. You can keep splitting the points in time. And the time it takes to pass from one point to another gets ever shorter. Now, you can do this ad infinium. So there's a teeny tiny time span between 1 and n. But don't forget, there are tiny timespans after this... which all add up to one second (1 second between points 1 and 2).

My question... there's an infinite number of smaller timespans between 1 and 2. If we travel through time, beginning at 1, and have to traverse each one to reach 2... how do we ever reach 2? Surely we cannot.. for then we would've reached the end of infinity. We would have travelled through an infinite number of timespans. Paradox. Explain where my logic is failing, please, before I implode.

spacesheikh
I think you're thinking about it a little too hard. There's no logic to fail with. You're assuming that one would split a finite amount of time into an infinite amount of points. That doesn't make a lot of sense if you're traveling through time. You would have to split that finite amount of time into a finite amount of intervals, otherwise there's no tangible amount of time to transverse. Saying that your intervals are infinite means that they're always going to be changing as you travel through them because without an actual number there's no way of traveling to any point because that point is always moving.

That's not true. As i said before, an infinite number of very small quantities can in fact add to a tangible sum.

Yes it is. You're talking about problem solving where there are no fixed points. If you're time traveling, the distance you travel between points is always the same. So you need a fixed number of intervals. Otherwise the said points are always moving. Which isn't logical when you're talking about time traveling.
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#36 branketra
Member since 2006 • 51726 Posts
[QUOTE="BranKetra"]1) There aren't infinite splits between points in time.scorch-62
Theoretically, there very well could be. However, these splits wouldn't work as the OP suggests.

Theoretically, maybe. What about the "Plank Length" though?
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#37 SicklySunStorm
Member since 2009 • 2004 Posts

Ask Sheldon. He'll know ;)

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SolidSnake35

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#38 SolidSnake35
Member since 2005 • 58971 Posts

Ask Sheldon. He'll know ;)

SicklySunStorm
If I lived in that world, I wouldn't be thinking about this problem. I'd be next door.
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#39 yellosnolvr
Member since 2005 • 19302 Posts
[QUOTE="scorch-62"][QUOTE="SolidSnake35"]Sounds about right.. I can't get my head around it still, though. In my head I have an analogy of a passenger in a car... passing way points. Though they are extremely small, they are still successive. You must pass them all. You must pass them all in one second. But you surely cannot, for there an infinite number of them. You might fly past a zillion of them in 0.9 seconds... but there'd be another zillion to pass in the last 0.1 seconds you have left.SolidSnake35
You're applying concepts of infinity to a finite set of time. Stop that.

It could solve world hunger. Slice a finite loaf of bread into an infinite number of pieces. Sandwiches for all.

i dont think giving millions of people microscopic sandwiches will do anything though.
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SolidSnake35

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#40 SolidSnake35
Member since 2005 • 58971 Posts
[QUOTE="yellosnolvr"][QUOTE="SolidSnake35"][QUOTE="scorch-62"] You're applying concepts of infinity to a finite set of time. Stop that.

It could solve world hunger. Slice a finite loaf of bread into an infinite number of pieces. Sandwiches for all.

i dont think giving millions of people microscopic sandwiches will do anything though.

We do live in an ungrateful world, don't we?
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__Chris__

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#41 __Chris__
Member since 2006 • 535 Posts

In reality there isn't an "infinite" number of points, only in the concept of time we use there is.

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Davulao

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#42 Davulao
Member since 2007 • 1042 Posts

I only clicked on this topic because I was called lovely. But now after reading, this whole thing just went right over my head.:?

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carrot-cake

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#43 carrot-cake
Member since 2008 • 6880 Posts

Thats one of xeno's paradoxes, look it up.

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194197844077667059316682358889

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#44 194197844077667059316682358889
Member since 2003 • 49173 Posts
Time is not infinitely divisible
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hockeyruler12

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#45 hockeyruler12
Member since 2005 • 8114 Posts

Time travel is possible forwards, just not backwards. If you move fast enough, you move slower through time than everybody else. If you were to send a guy in a spaceship at the speed of light for like 5 years, he would come back to Earth and more than 5 years would have passed.

Theory of Relativity. Pretty crazy.

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Maniacc1

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#46 Maniacc1
Member since 2006 • 5354 Posts

Xeno? Is that you?Theokhoth

Exactly what I was thinking. :lol:

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Barbariser

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#47 Barbariser
Member since 2009 • 6785 Posts

It doesn't matter how many points you have to cross. As long as the distance is finite, the energy and time requirements will be finite. Even if you divide the path into an infinite number of points it doesn't matter - each point will simply take an infinitely small amount of time and energy to cross.