I think homosexuality is probably a combination of genetics and natural life experiences. Having homosexual relations is a choice, however. Leviticus 20:13, even though it is a book of laws and not a philosophical text, condemns a man lying "With another man as one lies with a woman."
fidosim
Well, technically speaking... there are actually alternative ways of reading the original Hebrew text. The original Hebrew reads (transliterated) as follows:
Ve'et zachar lo tishkav mishkevei ishah to'evah hiv
Literally, this can be translated as follows:
(And with) male not (you shall lie down) (beds/lying down) women abhorrence it
The biggest problem in the interpretation of this verse is twofold. First, the word mishkevei has two disparate meanings, one being that of a bed, and the other being the sexual act of "lying down", so to speak. And, the second is that there's a very obvious preposition missing that would otherwise link tishkav with mishkevei.
So, the questions remain: Is this referring to bedding, or the act of having sex with someone? And what is the connection between the forbidding of lying down with men to either the bedding of women or the act of a woman giving herself sexually to someone?
Depending on the answers to these questions, there are actually a number of possible English translations one could make:
"And with men you shall not lie on beds of women; that is detestable." - Do not have homosexual intercourse in a bed belonging to a woman.
"And with men you shall not lie as a woman would lie down; that is detestable." - Do not act submissively during homosexual intercourse.
"And with men you shall not lie as you would lie down with women; that is detestable." - Do not have homosexual intercourse.
The third is the most common translation. But there is no reason to rule out the first two. The first may seem especially strange, but there are many other similar commands in the Torah, such as not putting two different types of seeds in a field, or not having two different types of threads in a clothing. There is an overarching principle that everything has its place, and this would really fit right in. The second is also quite possible - men were supposed to be strong, not weak, and a man acting submissively during sex would presumably be emasculating himself.
For the above reasons I think that, even if one accepts this commandment as one that is still in effect (which seems questionable, considering how many other things in the Torah that Christians ignore), it seems on rather shaky ground to me to claim that it necessarily forbids all homosexual intercourse, as is often claimed.
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