[QUOTE="coolbeans90"]
[QUOTE="Theokhoth"] Federal Court rulings supersede state laws. (If it's ruled unconstitutional, then no state may have it.)
Theokhoth
Federal law, when in conflict with state law supersedes state law. However, that doesn't mean that the state law is bound by the exact same legal framework. The Federal Gov't is capable of regulating interstate commerce via the commerce clause. It ONLY refers to the Federal government as it explicitly mentions Congress. This makes the lawsuit completely irrelevant to state law. Furthermore, according to the 10th amendment, powers not enumerated to the Federal government are reserved by the states and people respectively. Hence, state governments may in point of fact legislate regulation provided that it doesn't conflict with Federal law.
Once again, the Supreme Court interprets the Constitution, which includes the Tenth Amendment, the Commerce Clause, and everything else. If the Supreme Court says mandating a purchase violates the Constitution, that ruling sets the framework for the law in all fifty states, because no state law may contradict the Constitution (or the court's interpretation of it).You're so cute, trying to explain the law to everybody. Unfortunately, you have no clue how it works. I'll put it in simple terms for you...
If the Supreme Court rules that the federal government cannot do something, THAT DOES NOT mean the states cannot do it. THAT DOES NOT "set the framework for the law in all fifty states," whatever that's even supposed to mean. Most of the time, when the Supreme Court rules that the federal government cannot do something across the board, it does so precisely because it wants to leave the decision up to individual states. The Constitution does NOT apply to the states except in two circumstances: First, it applies to the states where there is what is termed a textually demonstrable commitment to the states, which is essentially a clause in the given section that says "this applies to the states." Second, it applies to the states if the Supreme Court chooses to incorporate it via the due process clause of the Fourteenth Amendment, or another section where there is a textually demonstrable commitment (but the 14th Amendment is the most common).
The Court hears very, very specific questions, and scope of their ruling is limited to those questions. In this case, the question will be, "can the federal government mandate health insurance purchases by citizens?" If the answer is no, it ONLY MEANS that the federal government cannot mandate health insurance purhcases by citizens. The states can still do it until the question of, "can the states mandate health insurance purchases by citizens" reaches the Court.
Federal court rulings do NOT supersede state law. In fact, federal district courts must follow the laws of the states in which they sit. Questions of state law between citizens of the same state cannot even be HEARD by a federal court. There must be either an interstate controversy or a federal question (this is basic subject matter jurisdiction). In almost all cases, the only way a federal ruling will directly supersede a state law is if it is made by the Supreme Court, and if it directly addresses the state law.
I'm tired of explaining this, but suffice it to say, you have no idea what the hell you're talking about. Nor do you have any idea of how the state and fedeal court systems work. I suggest law school.
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