This is a qoute from the HowStuffWorks website about Many Worlds Thoery:
"This idea is supported by the Copenhagen interpretation of quantum mechanics. Posed by the Danish physicist Niels Bohr, this interpretation says that all quantum particles don't exist in one state or the other, but in all of its possible states at once. The sum total of possible states of a quantum object is called its wave function. The state of an object existing in all of its possible states at once is called its superposition...To Everett, measuring a quantum object does not force it into one comprehensible state or another. Instead, a measurement taken of a quantum object causes an actual split in the universe. The universe is literally duplicated, splitting into one universe for each possible outcome from the measurement. For example, say an object's wave function is both a particle and a wave. When a physicist measures the particle, there are two possible outcomes: It will either be measured as a particle or a wave. This distinction makes Everett's Many-Worlds theory a competitor of the Copenhagen interpretation as an explanation for quantum mechanics." Link: http://science.howstuffworks.com/parallel-universe1.htm
This is one of the explanations for how parallel universes form. I think quantum objects kinda sounds like what this thread is about, though the whole parallel universe theory to me sounds like they don't really have any basis on facts. I watched this program about this (I think on the History channel) and they were trying to say that in parallel universes there is a world identical as ours and in this world each person has an identical self, only that when you raise your right arm your parallel self raises their left arm. Just think about the movie "The One" with Jet Li in it and that is what they are describing. This means that everything is duplicated for an eternity and within each parallel universe. Now I have virtully no knowlege of science and I just think its well... a dubious theory. I'm all for science and understanding the world around me, but I don't think that it is a very good theory. I am a Christian, so maybe that has something do with my view.
AmidstTheLight
Unfortunately, you have entirely missed the point, but i do admire your dedication - trying to solve this pseudoparadox.
The question given by the author of this topic, is formulated in a way which in itself negates the existence of, to the least, one of the forces, at the most, both of the forces. By applying the most basic of logical approaches; you simply reading what is stated to be there, you should already realize that the statement is false, leaving whichever conclusion you may draw from the statement, completely useless to any of the sciences which this question tries to cling on to. I´m gonna´ go over to the dear Niels Bohr intitute now and make an early spring cleaning - for this filth has nothing to do with his research.
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