[QUOTE="WhiteKnight77"][QUOTE="Ravensmash"] Nope. Because this case still lacks any form of consent on behalf of the female, and legally that is defined as rape or sexual assault.
If the service was provided and the guy ran off, then maybe - but this was being forced at gunpoint against her will.
ghoklebutter
See, this is where people failed to read the linked to article. If you had read it, you would have seen that she had consented to sex to begin with and there was an agreed to price. Once the original sex act was complete, the man pulled again and said that he would not pay for it. That right there is theft of services. Once he had her at gunpoint, he forced her to have sex with him again and then others. That is rape.
This is why it is actually both and not just rape.
"The accuser testified that she initially agreed to have sex with Gindraw and a friend of his in exchange for money, but that Gindraw refused to pay her, held a gun to her head and forced her to have sex with several men, according to a transcript of an Oct. 4 court hearing." I don't see anything that implies she first had consensual sex with Gindraw and then the other stuff happened.I may have misread it too, but she did consent to sex. If a woman agrees to sex, it isn't rape and in that case, the judge was right, theft of services. It just happens that the service provided is sex.
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