Questioin about birth control and confidentiality

My girlfriend and I want her to get on birth control, so we're safer. But her mother CANNOT find out. I've heard that she can get birth control confidentially, but here's my question:

Since her mom pays for her health insurance, is she able to see what medications my girlfriend is prescribed? Even though she is 18 and her health records are supposed to be confidential?

Thanks for the help.

I hope you change your evil ways.Tauruslink

I think it depends on the state, but here in Alabama, the parent can't see medical records of their kids if they're older than 18.cd_rom

Well that pretty much defeats the point. TC, if you go to a doctor and talk about it, im pretty sure they will work with you.

I hope you change your evil ways.Tauruslink

[QUOTE="Tauruslink"]I hope you change your evil ways.JonnyEagle

[QUOTE="cd_rom"]I think it depends on the state, but here in Alabama, the parent can't see medical records of their kids if they're older than 18.microsoft4life

Well that pretty much defeats the point. TC, if you go to a doctor and talk about it, im pretty sure they will work with you.

[QUOTE="JonnyEagle"]

[QUOTE="Tauruslink"]I hope you change your evil ways.cd_rom

I hope you change your evil ways.Tauruslink

I think it depends on the state. Birth Control is not a 100% Guarentee by the way. If you choose to engage in such matters she may still conceive a child.

Why do you want to kill babies?KittenNipples

You are joking right?

You can forgo going through insurance if she makes less a certain income a year through planned parenthood. Not sure if that is only in California though. And please still use a condom. Birth control is not 100% effective.Sajedene

EDIT: Also, that 99.7% is definitely better than the 98% effectiveness of condums, even if it is just by 1.7%. Basically, the pill is fine as long as you use it as directed, but use the condum as well if you're unsure as to if your partner has a disease or if they are possibly unfaithful.

Link: http://contraception.about.com/od/additionalresources/qt/comparison.htm

Why not just use condoms?xTheExploited

Why do you want to kill babies?KittenNipples

[QUOTE="xTheExploited"]Why not just use condoms?Famiking

[QUOTE="xTheExploited"]Why not just use condoms?Famiking

[QUOTE="Famiking"][QUOTE="xTheExploited"]Why not just use condoms?Setsa

[QUOTE="xTheExploited"]Why not just use condoms?Famiking

Whoa wait what the heck? Call me incompetent, but why does the chance of impregnating a woman increase so drastically with continued use of a condom?Setsa

It's like this: if you roll a die, there is a 16.7% chance you'll get a 6. But what about getting 6 twice in a row? 2.8%.

If you want to know how to calculate:

Chances of getting a 6 is 1/6. Chances of getting a 6 twice is - 1/6 * 1/6 = 1/36.

[QUOTE="Setsa"] Whoa wait what the heck? Call me incompetent, but why does the chance of impregnating a woman increase so drastically with continued use of a condom?Famiking

In conclusion, a woman who has sex for the tenth time using condoms is just as likely to get pregnant as a woman who has sex for the first time with condoms.

[QUOTE="Famiking"][QUOTE="Setsa"] Whoa wait what the heck? Call me incompetent, but why does the chance of impregnating a woman increase so drastically with continued use of a condom?Nerd_Man

Guys, guys, you're all looking at this wrong. His probabilities are all before the fact, that is to say, before having sex x number of times, not before the xth time.

Although, actually, your way of looking at pregnancy is not exactly accurate. It implies that 50 2% chance events will always yield one positive result, which isn't true.

Here's a better way of looking at it.

1 time: .98 chance of not getting pregnant
2 times: .98*.98 = .9604 not pregnant
3 times: .98*.98*.98 = .941192 not pregnant
...
n times: .98^n not pregnant

As n->infinity: lim.98^n = 0 not pregnant

EDIT: Onvm, that is how you did it. My post is irrelevant. :?

I've already mentioned the forumula. It goes like this: For condoms, there is a 98/100 (98%) chance you will not get pregnant.

So if you have sex twice: 98/100 * 98/100 = 9604/10000 = 96.04%. So there is a 96.04% chance you will not be pregnant if you have sex twice.

100 - 96.04 = 3.96% chance you are pregnant by the time you've down it twice.

Trust me, Math and Biology (yes, they teach this in Bio. as well) are my strong subjects :x

I've already mentioned the forumula. It goes like this: For condoms, there is a 98/100 (98%) chance you will not get pregnant.

So if you have sex twice: 98/100 * 98/100 = 9604/10000 = 96.04%. So there is a 96.04% chance you will not be pregnant if you have sex twice.

100 - 96.04 = 3.96% chance you are pregnant by the time you've down it twice.

Trust me, Math and Biology (yes, they teach this in Bio. as well) are my strong subjects :x

Famiking

It doesn't work that way. Your formula doesn't take into account all the confounding variables. It's not correct. For any given episode of sexual intercourse, the chance of prophylactic failure resulting in pregnancy is 6-26%%. It remainsas suchfor each time that you have sex.

Integrity of the condom, timing of menstrual cycle, appropriateness of prophylactic application, adequacy of birth control usage, and other variables must be taken into account, which is why there is such a wide range.

The chances of a woman getting pregnant on birth control even with perfect usage are almost alwaysnear 1/100 depending on the type of OCP andcompliance.

It doesn't work that way. Your formula doesn't take into account all the confounding variables. It's not correct. For any given episode of sexual intercourse, the chance of prophylactic failure resulting in pregnancy is 6-26%%. It remainsas suchfor each time that you have sex.

Integrity of the condom, timing of menstrual cycle, appropriateness of prophylactic application, adequacy of birth control usage, and other variables must be taken into account, which is why there is such a wide range.

The chances of a woman getting pregnant on birth control even with perfect usage are almost alwaysnear 1/100 depending on the type of OCP andcompliance.

drj077

Okay, I think I'm beginning to understand. The percentage isn't how likely the woman will get pregnant from one specific sex(? :P ) but of all the times put together the likelihood of her getting pregnant at least once? Am I getting it?xTheExploited

[QUOTE="Sajedene"]You can forgo going through insurance if she makes less a certain income a year through planned parenthood. Not sure if that is only in California though. And please still use a condom. Birth control is not 100% effective.Benevolentbob

EDIT: Also, that 99.7% is definitely better than the 98% effectiveness of condums, even if it is just by 1.7%. Basically, the pill is fine as long as you use it as directed, but use the condum as well if you're unsure as to if your partner has a disease or if they are possibly unfaithful.

Link: http://contraception.about.com/od/additionalresources/qt/comparison.htm

[QUOTE="drj077"]

[QUOTE="Famiking"]

I've already mentioned the forumula. It goes like this: For condoms, there is a 98/100 (98%) chance you will not get pregnant.

So if you have sex twice: 98/100 * 98/100 = 9604/10000 = 96.04%. So there is a 96.04% chance you will not be pregnant if you have sex twice.

100 - 96.04 = 3.96% chance you are pregnant by the time you've down it twice.

Trust me, Math and Biology (yes, they teach this in Bio. as well) are my strong subjects :x

Famiking

It doesn't work that way. Your formula doesn't take into account all the confounding variables. It's not correct. For any given episode of sexual intercourse, the chance of prophylactic failure resulting in pregnancy is 6-26%%. It remainsas suchfor each time that you have sex.

Integrity of the condom, timing of menstrual cycle, appropriateness of prophylactic application, adequacy of birth control usage, and other variables must be taken into account, which is why there is such a wide range.

The chances of a woman getting pregnant on birth control even with perfect usage are almost alwaysnear 1/100 depending on the type of OCP andcompliance.

Birth control pills are NEVER safter than condoms. No matter how much math you do. Working through percents tells you nothing about the likelihood of acquiring disease or the likelihood that she will have an adverse reaction to the hormones now running through her body.

Going on birth control simply because you don't want to use a condom is a foolish idea. OCPs should be used in women that don't desire pregancy and want to continue to use another form of birth control, as well, like condoms.

[QUOTE="Famiking"][QUOTE="drj077"]

It doesn't work that way. Your formula doesn't take into account all the confounding variables. It's not correct. For any given episode of sexual intercourse, the chance of prophylactic failure resulting in pregnancy is 6-26%%. It remainsas suchfor each time that you have sex.

Integrity of the condom, timing of menstrual cycle, appropriateness of prophylactic application, adequacy of birth control usage, and other variables must be taken into account, which is why there is such a wide range.

The chances of a woman getting pregnant on birth control even with perfect usage are almost alwaysnear 1/100 depending on the type of OCP andcompliance.

drj077

Birth control pills are NEVER safter than condoms. No matter how much math you do. Working through percents tells you nothing about the likelihood of acquiring disease or the likelihood that she will have an adverse reaction to the hormones now running through her body.

Going on birth control simply because you don't want to use a condom is a foolish idea. OCPs should be used in women that don't desire pregancy and want to continue to use another form of birth control, as well, like condoms.

Birth control pills are NEVER safter than condoms. No matter how much math you do. Working through percents tells you nothing about the likelihood of acquiring disease or the likelihood that she will have an adverse reaction to the hormones now running through her body.

Going on birth control simply because you don't want to use a condom is a foolish idea. OCPs should be used in women that don't desire pregancy and want to continue to use another form of birth control, as well, like condoms.

drj077

My post was how birth control pills are better than condoms if you want to avoid pregnancy. Yes, I said there is a 87% chance you'll be pregnant by the time you did it 100 times if you use condom as the method of birth control - but I'm well aware it could be as low as 50% or as high as 95%. But getting the exact percentages was not my point, showing the affect of continuous use was.

Point: I'm trying to be a Math smarty pants, not a Biological one.

[QUOTE="drj077"]

Birth control pills are NEVER safter than condoms. No matter how much math you do. Working through percents tells you nothing about the likelihood of acquiring disease or the likelihood that she will have an adverse reaction to the hormones now running through her body.

Going on birth control simply because you don't want to use a condom is a foolish idea. OCPs should be used in women that don't desire pregancy and want to continue to use another form of birth control, as well, like condoms.

Famiking

My post was how birth control pills are better than condoms if you want to avoid pregnancy. Yes, I said there is a 87% chance you'll be pregnant by the time you did it 100 times if you use condom as the method of birth control - but I'm well aware it could be as low as 50% or as high as 95%. But getting the exact percentages was not my point, showing the affect of continuous use was.

Point: I'm trying to be a Math smarty pants, not a Biological one.

Again, the problem with your continuous usage hypothesis is that the chance of condom failure remains the same no matter how many times you have sex. It's the same if you have sex once or a 100 times in a year. It's always the same.

The above truth remains correct for OCPs, as well.

[QUOTE="Famiking"]

[QUOTE="drj077"]

Birth control pills are NEVER safter than condoms. No matter how much math you do. Working through percents tells you nothing about the likelihood of acquiring disease or the likelihood that she will have an adverse reaction to the hormones now running through her body.

Going on birth control simply because you don't want to use a condom is a foolish idea. OCPs should be used in women that don't desire pregancy and want to continue to use another form of birth control, as well, like condoms.

drj077

My post was how birth control pills are better than condoms if you want to avoid pregnancy. Yes, I said there is a 87% chance you'll be pregnant by the time you did it 100 times if you use condom as the method of birth control - but I'm well aware it could be as low as 50% or as high as 95%. But getting the exact percentages was not my point, showing the affect of continuous use was.

Point: I'm trying to be a Math smarty pants, not a Biological one.

Again, the problem with your continuous usage hypothesis is that the chance of condom failure remains the same no matter how many times you have sex. It's the same if you have sex once or a 100 times in a year. It's always the same.

The above truth remains correct for OCPs, as well.

Again, the problem with your continuous usage hypothesis is that the chance of condom failure remains the same no matter how many times you have sex. It's the same if you have sex once or a 100 times in a year. It's always the same.

The above truth remains correct for OCPs, as well.

drj077

Yeah, like my coin metaphor, the chances will always remain the same. It doesn't matter how many times you flip a coin, each and every time you will have a 50% chance of it landing on heads. If condom usage has about a 2% chance of getting a woman pregnant, then it will always remain at that 2%. It doesn't matter how many times a woman has sex, she's still just as likely as getting pregnant as a woman who has sex for the first time.Nerd_Man

Case in point: I'll be surprised if you have had sex a million times and never got pregnant (unless you're infertile or something of course).

[QUOTE="drj077"]

Again, the problem with your continuous usage hypothesis is that the chance of condom failure remains the same no matter how many times you have sex. It's the same if you have sex once or a 100 times in a year. It's always the same.

The above truth remains correct for OCPs, as well.

Famiking

If you're trying to talk about probability, then you have a whole different type of math here. You're options are pregnant or not pregnant with pregnancy being the undesired numerator and the total number of possibilities in the denominator. In that case it's always 1/2 and thus multiplicative for each episode of intercourse. If you have sex 10 times, the possibility of pregnancy in the 10 encounters is 1/2^10 or .009%