[QUOTE="GabuEx"]A few questions, then, out of curiosity:
1. What were Jesus' last words on the cross?
2. To whom did Jesus first appear after his resurrection?
3. How much did Jesus speak about himself?
4. If we wish to be justified, is it by observance of the Law, or by faith that we may be so?
aaronmullan
1. "My god why have you forsaken me. It is finished." or something similar
2. *can't remember*
3. Rarely?
4. *shrugs*
Well, I'm going to have to confess: all four are trick questions.
#1 -
Matthew & Mark: "My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?" (Matthew 27:46; Mark 15:34)
Luke: "Father, into your hands I commit my spirit." (Luke 23:46)
John: "It is finished." (John 19:30)
#2 -
Matthew: Mary Magdeline and another woman named Mary (Matthew 28:1-9)
Mark: Mary Magdeline alone (Mark 16:9) (Earliest manuscripts end at Mark 16:8, however, and do not mention this.)
Luke: Two travelers (Luke 24:13-16)
John: Mary Magdeline alone (John 20:10-16)
#3 -
Matthew, Mark, & Luke: Not very much.
John: Constantly.
#4 -
Luke: Observance of the Law (Luke 10:25-37)
Paul: Faith (Galatians 2:16)
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Why do I ask these trick questions? Simple: because if it were the case that the Bible was the one true received text from God himself, one would expect it all to be in perfect harmony. Instead, there are a number of crucial details on which the texts are just plainly not in accordance one bit. This bears all the hallmarks of oral storytelling that likely evolved over the forty years that elapsed between Jesus' death and the writing of the synoptic gospels (Matthew, Mark, and Luke; John came later). The Jesus depicted in the synoptic gospels is particularly incompatible with the Jesus depicted in John; the two bear practically no resemblance to one another in terms of their focus. Nowhere in the synoptic gospels does Jesus ever make any claims such as that he is the truth and the light and that none come to the father except through him.
In addition to that, Paul's writings and Jesus' teachings are not really in accordance, either. This makes perfect sense, of course, to those who do not assert a divinely inspired Bible: Paul never met Jesus in the flesh, and the gospels had not been written yet, so he, of course, would have no easy access to knowledge about Jesus' sayings or actions. But if we're asserting that his writings, too, are divinely inspired, does it not seem rather strange that he would make no reference to Jesus' miracles, or statements, or indeed anything about Jesus whatsoever other than his resurrection? His writings, like the gospels, bear the hallmarks of someone whose knowledge about Jesus was only vague and secondhand, which poses distinct problems to those who assert the divinely inspired nature of the entire Bible from cover to cover.
For the above reasons, I must question whether those claiming that the Bible is completely divinely inspired have in fact given serious consideration to what the text actually says. The irreconcilability of the text of the gospels, both between each other and with regards to the subsequent epistles, really ought to give most anyone grave doubts about that assertion, I think.
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