[QUOTE="thepwninator"] True, but there is an implicit consent by the mother through her engaging in unprotected sex (again, assuming it was willingly). If she didn't want a baby, she simply should've had her partner wear a condom.VandalvideoHah, way to play it safe with the contraception argument. The argument I was going to use before you said that actually does lead to the conclusion that the absence of contraception is basically a waver of those rights. However, while using contraception the individual is saying; I do not want this.
but most preganacies are accidents anyway because of (human error I know but still) contraception not performing correctly because of human error so does that mean she waved her rights because she made a mistake using her contraception?
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