[QUOTE="nbtrap1212"]I don't know the answer to many of your questions. I am no theologist or philosopher, but I'll try my best to answer the questions that I can, at least with the common thought.
Jesus answers your first question in Mark 12:35. "How do the scribes claim that the Messiah is the son of David? David himself, inspired by the holy Spirit, said: 'The Lord said to my lord, "Sit at my right hand until I place your enemies under your feet."' David himself calls him 'lord'; so how is he his son?"
Here is the foot-note from my Bible:
"Jesus questions the claim of the scribes about the Davidic descent of the Messiah, not to deny it, but to imply that he is more that this. His superiority derives from his transcendent origin, to which David himself attested when he spoke of the Messiah with the name "Lord".
In other words, Jesus is basically saying, "Why would anyone call his own son 'lord'?"
There is also a very similar passage in Matthew, and probably in Luke and John as well.
The Old Testament still is and always has been part of the Christian Bible. They usually read from it at least once in a Catholic Mass.
Zagrius
I don't know, the Hebrew word for 'my lord' is 'adoni' (note, not 'adonai'), which can refer to a person you respect, not just your superior. And yet, wouldn't the messiah be superior? Wouldn't he at least deserve quite a bit of respect, even from his grand*13(or 14) father? I'll drop this line of questioning though, since I don't recall where in the OT they say that the messiah must be of the line of David.
Still, I see many odd things, like Jesus telling his disciples to spread his word, and telling them to say loudly what he whispers to them and such, which seems kind of cowardly to me. Also, he seems to tell them to go resurrect people who are dead. Really weird stuff. I'm going to continue reading, but it's really confusing to me, and I don't think that I'll end up seeing it as the word of God.
Oh, a question though. Is there a chance that I'm reading a bad translation instead of a copy of the original text? It's just that I found (still in Matthew) 10:34-36 to be rather disquieting, and doesn't really seem to go at all with Jesus' message. He talks of bringing strife instead of peace, of putting a wedge between children and their parents, brides and their mothers-in-law, etc'... To make a man's family his enemy... It kind of sounds fishy, which is why I ask.
No that's correct, and Jesus meant it. Think about it though. He came to bring division (I think in one gospel he says he came to bring the sword). But is that not exactly what has happened? The believers vs. the non believers, the faithful vs. the unfaithful, the Jews who are still awaiting the Messiah vs. the Christians, the Catholic church vs. the Greek Orthodox church vs. the Protestant churches, the crusades, and on, and on and on and on.
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