[QUOTE="GreySeal9"]
[QUOTE="LJS9502_basic"]Then provide some proof that one is literal and the other figurative. Why ask me? I presented an argument on symbolism in the OT. As I've told you several times now it was someone else who brought the NT into the discussion. That was never what I was discussing. But I'm ASKING YOU to back up your statement that they are the same. The burden of proof is on you as that is the argument you have made continually in this thread. You cannot make statements and then say the burden is not on you while asking others to provide proof.
I gave you a link showing it's NOT just my opinion that the Jewsih people used symbolism. So why should I say that is my opinion? That makes no sense.
LJS9502_basic
Jesus Christ. I never said the Jewish didn't use symbolism. Why are you having such difficulty with this? Why can't you just read the posts correctly?
I said that the distinction you made between the OT and NT insofar as sybolism and literalness is your opinion, not that the Jewish used symbolism. Please brush up on your reading comphrension or don't reply to my posts. I am tired of correcting you about what I said. I shouldn't have to do that.
I asked you what the distinction was. Why should I have to proof that they are the same when you have not proved that there is a difference insofar as literalness. You are simply trying to worm out of the question. I simply said I don't see a difference in that regard. How should I prove that? That's like asking me to prove a negative. I asked you a question, not the other way around. You're simply trying to shift the burden of proof because you don't want to admit that the distinction is simply your opinion. If you want to present in another fashion, actually back up your claims.
You say that you weren't talking about the NT, but you did make the distinction between the NT and the OT and I inquired about that. You simply don't have an answer to the question. That the Jewish used symbolism doesn't prove anything in that regard. It simply proves that the Jewish used symbolism. Nothing else. What is so difficult to understand about that?
Reread my post above and point out where I said you said symbolism isn't in the OT. I am again asking you to present evidence for the distinction. Same think I asked above. Do you really want to discuss my read of your posts?If you want to provide a distinction between the two then you have to present the reasons why...and opinion doesn't cut it. Why should I have to develop your argument? Again and for about the third or fouth time....I was discussing the OT...not the NT. So if you want to change the direction of the discussion...do so with some solid proof. I really am not interested in discussing your opinion.
I gave you the reasons.....but you'd have to study the books and you don't want to do that. Not my fault. It's not a simple yes or no answer. You state you agree symbolism is in the OT. Fine. However, I'd have to see your proof of the historical account of Jesus being regarded as symbolism.
Jesus Christ. I didn't present a disintction between the two, I said that I see no difference that would make one figurative and one literal. And I asked you and you engaged me. So you can't just say "that's not what I was discussing" when you engaged me on the question. If you don't want to discuss that, don't quote me. What is difficult to understand about that? Why do you constantly respond to my questions and then say "that's not what I was talking about!" when pressed.
You gave no explanation for your reasons. You simply asserted your own opinion and now you are trying to shift the burden of proof. Why can't you just admit that that is simply your opinion? Why do you have to try to make it more concrete that it is and then not provide proof?
Again, what evidence, outside of your own opinion, do you have that one is figurative while the other is literal?
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